An easy question with an objective answer. If you consider that the male genitalia (specifically the testicles) are producing 300 million sperm (300,000,000) daily, then obviously we know what this so-called "1% man" is. We're talkin' only 3,000,000 sperm. Next question.
Three million wiggleys ain't the answer. The reason is that some of the wiggleys will make girlys, and thus they are not part of the man hood objective.
The real answer lies in the comparison between milk and the girth of man's weinkee. For example, a 1% man should have a girth of 1 inch. A 3% (or whole as it is commonly reffered to) man should have a girth of 3"
Right now some wives are drinking skim, but I ain't telling who.
PS do you guys remember when Blake and Jessy hated each other. That was funny.
Well I can see that no one here has read Gulliver's Travels. A 1% man is simply a lilipution...that is a person from liliput where people are very short. Really, I thought we all went to college.
When one says, " Wow, you're drinking whole milk." They mean your drinking milk that contains 3% fat.
If a woman says to you, " Wow, your a whole man." That means you have a 3" man-weikee girth.
The point, and I believe that you have inadvertently over looked this, is that the scale stops at 3% or 3", respectively – it is just like the milk scale. You cannot drink 100% milk because at that point, it would cease to be milk -- it would be all fat.
A woman cannot enjoy a 100% man, she can only handle her 3% (if she’s lucky). So, according to our milk/man scale, a 3% a man is considered to be whole.
I would like to point out that you can also compare the manhood scale to beer drinking:
You want a nice frothy head with your beer, but you don't want it to be too big.
I think the only thing we have concluded thus far, is to say that none of you have reached the status of being a "1% Man." This very statement (in case you are slow to catch on) implies that 1% is a goal to reach for, and not something you would like to pull further away from. However, the previous statement does not guarantee the possibility for everyone to reach the state of being a "1% man."
Now it is somewhat totalitarian to say such a statement on exclusivity, yet it would be quite irrationally utopian and somewhat communistic (is that a word Bob?) to imply the opposite.
Yes, this state of being in the "1%" is for some, an unattainable ideal. Yet for others, it is quite attainable, and for some of the select few lucky souls... being at the "1%" state is reality.
With that, we have come to the defining moment of what it truly means to be a "1% Man." And friends, I think it is quite simple. Some would argue that it is tied to the definition and reality of what we call "truth." However, I would disagree with them...
B/c, truth is definite, yet being a "1% man," is relative. That's right. Thus, each of us could be a "1% Man" in our own right, while the others of use, for each of us, would not fit "our" criteria of "1%-ness."
And as for me, being a "1% Man," means that I am in the top 1% of the sexiest men in the entire world.
Bigbie, I like your definition. So, drawing conclusions from your arguments about milk and its percentness, could one also conclude that a 100% man would be all fat too? Thanks in advance.
Okay, clarity to the milk argument. First, whole milk in the store is actually 3.25% and straight-from-udder milk is around 5%. 5"!! HA! You'd have to marry an elephant. Finally, what hell about cream (45%). I mean the blue whale doesn't even stand a chance. Even in full dillation.
Joey pointed out the whole milk is actually 3.25% fat. As far as the man scale is concerned, I would note that one loses at least .25% of man weinkee hood when the foreskin is removed at birth.
However,if you still have a foreskin -- your a whole man without any questions asked. That is just my opinion, but I think its the right one.
As far as milk from the udder -- few individuals have access to it, so it is not included on the man Weinkee scale. Just like few woman have sexual access to a man as fine as clayton. Few people have access to a beverage as fine as straight from the udder milk.
Cream, though similar in nature, is not milk. Therefore, it is not on the man weikee scale. Beef has more than 3% fat as well, but it ain't milk. Cheese also comes from cows, but it isn't milk. Therefore, neither product applies to the scale.
17 comments:
I'll let you know my thoughts on the matter if you humor me with your ideas. thanks.
...been too quiet as of late.
An easy question with an objective answer. If you consider that the male genitalia (specifically the testicles) are producing 300 million sperm (300,000,000) daily, then obviously we know what this so-called "1% man" is. We're talkin' only 3,000,000 sperm. Next question.
Three million wiggleys ain't the answer. The reason is that some of the wiggleys will make girlys, and thus they are not part of the man hood objective.
The real answer lies in the comparison between milk and the girth of man's weinkee. For example, a 1% man should have a girth of 1 inch. A 3% (or whole as it is commonly reffered to) man should have a girth of 3"
Right now some wives are drinking skim, but I ain't telling who.
PS do you guys remember when Blake and Jessy hated each other. That was funny.
Well I can see that no one here has read Gulliver's Travels. A 1% man is simply a lilipution...that is a person from liliput where people are very short. Really, I thought we all went to college.
Bigbie, what the hell is a 100% man???
evidently a 1% man is the small part of the male population that knows what a 1% man is...
anyone heard of the 1% doctrine?
I second Joey's question.
A 1% man is a man who drinks shitty-ass milk. Enough said.
~The Norweigan
here here...
Joey, what is 100% milk?? There is no such thing.
When one says, " Wow, you're drinking whole milk." They mean your drinking milk that contains 3% fat.
If a woman says to you, " Wow, your a whole man." That means you have a 3" man-weikee girth.
The point, and I believe that you have inadvertently over looked this, is that the scale stops at 3% or 3", respectively – it is just like the milk scale. You cannot drink 100% milk because at that point, it would cease to be milk -- it would be all fat.
A woman cannot enjoy a 100% man, she can only handle her 3% (if she’s lucky). So, according to our milk/man scale, a 3% a man is considered to be whole.
I would like to point out that you can also compare the manhood scale to beer drinking:
You want a nice frothy head with your beer, but you don't want it to be too big.
I would also like to point out that Locklair would have to be on the buttermilk scale. He's got a little something extra
I think the only thing we have concluded thus far, is to say that none of you have reached the status of being a "1% Man." This very statement (in case you are slow to catch on) implies that 1% is a goal to reach for, and not something you would like to pull further away from. However, the previous statement does not guarantee the possibility for everyone to reach the state of being a "1% man."
Now it is somewhat totalitarian to say such a statement on exclusivity, yet it would be quite irrationally utopian and somewhat communistic (is that a word Bob?) to imply the opposite.
Yes, this state of being in the "1%" is for some, an unattainable ideal. Yet for others, it is quite attainable, and for some of the select few lucky souls... being at the "1%" state is reality.
With that, we have come to the defining moment of what it truly means to be a "1% Man." And friends, I think it is quite simple. Some would argue that it is tied to the definition and reality of what we call "truth." However, I would disagree with them...
B/c, truth is definite, yet being a "1% man," is relative. That's right. Thus, each of us could be a "1% Man" in our own right, while the others of use, for each of us, would not fit "our" criteria of "1%-ness."
And as for me, being a "1% Man," means that I am in the top 1% of the sexiest men in the entire world.
Bigbie, I like your definition. So, drawing conclusions from your arguments about milk and its percentness, could one also conclude that a 100% man would be all fat too? Thanks in advance.
~The Norweigan
In addition to my last question, may I also ask whether a 100% man is the originator of the term "chubby"? Thanks once again to all for your input.
~The Norge
After reading the verbose, not to mention nonsensical disquisition that was Clay's elucitation of a 1% man I have apprehended 3 things.
1. That a 1% man is a man who spends 99% of his time thinking up shit like 1% man.
2. The 1% man could better spend the 99% by actually contributing to society.
3. And most importantly 3"??? Damn, I must be drinking butter.
Okay, clarity to the milk argument. First, whole milk in the store is actually 3.25% and straight-from-udder milk is around 5%. 5"!! HA! You'd have to marry an elephant. Finally, what hell about cream (45%). I mean the blue whale doesn't even stand a chance. Even in full dillation.
Joey pointed out the whole milk is actually 3.25% fat. As far as the man scale is concerned, I would note that one loses at least .25% of man weinkee hood when the foreskin is removed at birth.
However,if you still have a foreskin -- your a whole man without any questions asked. That is just my opinion, but I think its the right one.
As far as milk from the udder -- few individuals have access to it, so it is not included on the man Weinkee scale. Just like few woman have sexual access to a man as fine as clayton. Few people have access to a beverage as fine as straight from the udder milk.
Cream, though similar in nature, is not milk. Therefore, it is not on the man weikee scale. Beef has more than 3% fat as well, but it ain't milk. Cheese also comes from cows, but it isn't milk. Therefore, neither product applies to the scale.
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